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#1 |
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Spit Roasting Some Clunkers
Registered: May 2003
Location: The junkyard
Posts: 6,688
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What happens when the status of a use changes?
Here is a theoretical situation for everyone to comment on: Say your municipality allows use variances.
Said use in X zoning district requires a use variance at the time it is reviewed. It is approved. 10 years later the zoning code is amended to permit said use as a special use within X zoning district. What's is the zoning status of the use which was granted a use variance 10 years earlier? Alternately, a use is a special use in X zoning district, but 10 years later is becomes a prohibited use (requires use variance). What is the zoning status of said use after it becomes a prohibited use? Let's hear from the throbbing brain: What do you think or know you would do in these situations?
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I'm sorry. Is my bias showing? |
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#2 |
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Which one? Both? Neither?
![]() Registered: Jun 2007
Location: Austin, Texas
Posts: 1,833
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If the use is permitted (or was permitted at the time it began, whether through an approved variance or a use permitted by right or special permit) I would let the use continue so long as they do not increase their now-non-conformity.
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“Others, too, have brains.” – John Wooden |
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#3 | ||
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Cyburbian
Registered: Dec 2001
Location: West Valley, AZ
Posts: 3,689
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Quote:
Quote:
In both situations, the use rights should carry with the property through uninterrupted use. A good code defines a practical and realistic timeframe to determine what constitutes uninterrupted. I've seen variances and conditional uses issued to the use and not the property and disagree with this application.
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Dude, I'm cheesing so hard right now. |
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#4 |
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Cyburbian
Registered: Jun 2007
Location: Colorado
Posts: 75
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Sounds like a good and correct example of an oft abused term - "grandfathered."
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