Okay, folks, I know that there has been a ton of posts re: private practice versus public, so if this particular topic has been covered, feel free to redirect me.
The question- if a planner in the public sector makes approximately 30k a year (or around $15/hour), what does that equate to in private practice?
More generally, how does that conversion really work? Do your wages equal about 1/3 of your total costs (which is what I've heard)? Any thoughts?