In October of 1999, six months prior to my appointment as Zoning Administrator, a business owner complained about an "out of date" sign. The sign is still erected on a building that use to be a jewelry store, but since has moved(over ten years ago). The business owner complaining owns a new jewelry store in the same block and feels this sign is hindering his business because the village has allowed the sign to remain for advertisement of the other jeweler, only because he still owns the building which the sign is erected upon. In a response letter to the complaintant, our village attorney says, "It is in my opinion...the property owner retains deed to the property where the sign is erected, thus maintaining the right(through continuity) to advertise his business currently located in another town. However, the village attorney did not cite the proper ordinance to the complaintant. The ordinance reads: If the owner of a sign or the property on which a sign is located changes the location of a building, property line, or sign or changes the use of a building (which is now a ceramic shop)so that any sign on the property is made non-conforming, such sign must be removed or made to conform to this article.
What kind of recourse do we have? Is our attorney in violation of the Freedom of Information Act? He did not give the complaintant the correct information.