Are the studies showing impact fees being passed on to buyers detailed enough to differentiate between a causal versus a casual correlation? In other words, would a supplier succeed in a price increase regardless of the development impact fee? If the supplier would, then the price increase would be due to previously unmeasured increased demand or decreased supply, not the impact fee, and the price would have eventually been increased regardless of the impact fee. If a statistically significant number of suppliers didn't succeed in a price increase immediately before the establishing of an SDC, said establishment should have an impact on growth, which a local city manager claims is not the case.


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