This building on a C1 (low density commercial zone) was used as part residential and part office. The neighborhood, despite this classification, was mostly residential (these predated the zoning code). Years later it was rezoned to residential (not allowing home occupation or offices). Years after that, the owner of the building moved his residence elsewhere, but filed an application to the city to grant permission to use the entire building as an office. Reasons he gave for not converting the property to residential were: 1) the cost of conversion would cost half of its full value assessment as an office and residence, and 2) the rental value would not allow him to pay the mortgage and property taxes on the property if converted to a residence.
the guy's neighbor was protesting the grant of this permission. do you think this situation constitutes spot zoning or should the grant be OK since it is a prior nonconforming use? i'm feeling stuck between these two ideas.