If a local government establishes a new ordinance that in effect makes a sign nonconforming - is that local government required to provide some time for the owner of that sign to modify and make the sign conforming or allow the sign to be grandfathered and become legally nonconforming?
Or, can a local government mandate that all nonconforming signs must be removed essentially once the ordinance is in place?
a case law ref. would be great!
(Dan) Changed the thread title from "Grandfathering/legal nonconforming required?"