Our city is proposing some pretty broad and far-reaching sign amendments - adds, deletes and rephrasing.
Now, there is a portion of our city, about 5% or less of the land area, that comprises our class 'A' office and heavy retail. This region is a huge, huge economic/employment generator for the city and its tax revenue is a big part of the reason our residential tax millage rate is so low.
This area straddles our city limits/county line with the neighboring jurisdiction. There is in place a Community Improvement District overlay that affects both portions of the region, our side & their side. (For those that don't know, a CID is a voluntary "tax" paid into a fund run by the CID Board. The Board, in a quasi-govermental role, can then initiate stricter standards for design & construction in the District, and also utilize those "taxes" for public improvements like infrastructure & transportation.)
Well, being the good neighbors we are, we decided to forward a draft copy of our proposed changes to the CID, prior to the Public Hearings on the changes. Their general response was that they didn't want to be a part of the new standards. They want to be exempted. So as not to lose the whole of the document, the City powers are seeking to aquiesce. In essence, they want to develop an applicability for our sign code that exempts the CID.
Question: Is it conceivable that a sign ordinance can act as an overlay standard? And if so, can we apply that overlay standard to 95% of our City and exempt the CID?
I ask because that's the way I'm being told to couch the proposal. It's not a sign ordinance for which 5% of the city is exempt; it's an overlay which affects 95% of the city.