My city has a typical Euclidean zoning districts and has had this since late 1920's so the development pattern is pretty consistent with the zoning. Our commercial districts are pretty much at capacity - there are redevelopment opportunities but very few vacant properties.
A Planning Commissioner wants to make amendments to the zoning code that would allow all residential uses in all districts (including commercial and industrial). At first he said that the purpose of this amendment would be to eliminate any issues concerning non-conforming housing and mortgages, but after further dialogue he said he thinks we should allow new construction residential (single family to multi-family) anywhere in the City. I used the corner of the mall parking lot as an example, and asked if he thought a single family home should be allowed there, and he said "Sure, why not?!". My response was because of traffic, noise, trash, etc. complaints that we would surely receive. He said that it would be their fault for building there in the first place.
FWIW, we will be starting a review of the future land use map in the near future, and have considered elements of form based code in certain corridors. Other than concerns I mentioned above, I think we need to get a better grasp of our existing land uses as well as future, and in the meantime we only have limited property for development, so my inclination is to not support this request.
Anyone else out there with Euclidean zoning allow residential in all districts? Have you encountered any problems with it due to conflicting uses? Any thoughts in general? Thanks in advance!