My City council rezones property to specific uses. I am relatively new to my position as Planning Director but I have never experienced this. For example, an applicant will petition to rezone a property to C-6 (Community Commercial) and they will decide that all the uses allowed under the C-6 are not appropriate and amend the bill to rezone to the particular use the applicant is requesting the rezoning for. We have several attorney's on Council and they feel if the applicant agrees in public to this then it is not challengeable. Does anyone have any case law on this? Advice?