I would like to pick the Cyburbia brain on a couple of questions regarding rezoning.
1. When a City changes the regulations of a specific zoning district and those changes render some of the businesses in that district legal non-conforming, should the City have informed the owners of these businesses that their use would now be legal non-conforming so they could have a say in the zoning regulation changes?
2. Taking that a step further, do you feel that if a City rezones a residential parcel to a business zoning classification, don't you think that the owners should be notified of any zoning change?