For a long time I have operated under the belief that a local government is not bound by its own regulations. Ideally, projects of the local government would comply with adopted zoning regs, however, they were not required to comply. When I mentioned this to some of my colleagues they looked at me as if I had 3 heads, whereas, 2 other colleagues agreed with me. Following up, I posed the question to one of the assistant county attorneys who told me she'd never heard of such a provision; however, of course the state and federal agencies were not bound by local laws, but the county uses were.
Am I nuts? Has anyone else heard of this concept? Any thoughts would be appreciated!
Am I nuts? Has anyone else heard of this concept? Any thoughts would be appreciated!